I have recently purchased an off-plan property which the occupation date on the OTP was 01 September 2018.
I have requested the Occupation Certificate to which the developer could not furnish, and as a result agreed telephonically to shift the Occupation Date to âon registrationâ.
Later when receiving an email confirmation of the change, the developer noted that he had spoken to the chairman and changed it to âthe date the occupancy certificate is receivedâ.
I am currently disputing this with the developer.
My question is:
Is it legal for the attorneys to issue an Occupational Rent invoice to myself knowing there is no occupancy certificate issued for the property in question â as I have received one which they later scrapped when I raised the Occupation Certificate issue with the developer.
As I understand it, is it not illegal to occupy the premises as there is no registered service connections (water, electricity, sewerage etc) with the municipality if there is no occupancy certificate?